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Q1.
Cells in Go phase
(A) enter the cell cycle
(B) suspend the cell cycle
(C) terminate the cell cycle
(D) exit the cell cycle
Q2.
Phloem in gymnosperms lacks
(A) sieve tubes only
(B) companion cells only
(C) both sieve tubes and companion cells
(D) albuminous cells and sieve cells
Q3.
Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following
(A) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(B) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(C) Tyloses in vessels
(D) Closure of stomata
Q4.
If a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (Rr) is crossed with a pea plant homozygous for wrinkled seeds (rr), what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
(A) 1:1
(B) 3:1
(C) 1:3
(D) 2:1
Q5.
Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
(A) Axile
(B) Parietal
(C) Free central
(D) Basal
Q6.
If the mRNA codon is 5'-AUG-3', what amino acid will it code for?
(A) Methionine
(B) Glycine
(C) Proline
(D) Serine
Q7.
Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?
(A) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane
(B) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings
(C) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
(D) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins
Q8.
It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?
(A) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(B) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(C) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
(D) Auxin and Ethylene
Q9.
If one parent has blood group AB and the other has blood group O, what are the possible blood groups of their children?
(A) A, B, AB, O
(B) A, AB
(C) A, B
(D) B, O
Q10.
Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?
(A) Chlorella
(B) Anabaena
(C) Lactobacillus
(D) Trichoderma
Q11.
If an mRNA sequence has 120 nucleotides, how many amino acids will be coded?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 120
(D) 360
Q12.
A frameshift mutation occurs if:
(A) A codon is replaced.
(B) A nucleotide is deleted.
(C) A stop codon is introduced.
(D) An amino acid is removed
Q13.
Which of the following codons is a stop codon?
(A) AUG
(B) UGG
(C) UAG
(D) GUA
Q14.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH
(B) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures
(C) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
Q15.
A diploid cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes and chromatids will be present in each cell during metaphase I of meiosis?
(A) 12 chromosomes and 12 chromatids
(B) 12 chromosomes and 24 chromatids
(C) 24 chromosomes and 12 chromatids
(D) 24 chromosomes and 24 chromatids
Q16.
A plant species has a diploid chromosome number of 36. How many chromosomes will be present in the cells of the gametophyte?
(A) 36
(B) 18
(C) 72
(D) 9
Q17.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(A) Spirogyra - Motile gametes
(B) Sargassum - Chlorophyll
(C) Basidiomycetes - Puffballs
(D) Nostoc - Water blooms
Q18.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Viruses are obligate parasites
(B) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
(C) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
(D) Viroids lack a protein coat
Q19.
If the chromosome number in the microspore mother cell of a gymnosperm is 28, what will be the chromosome number in its pollen grain?
(A) 14
(B) 28
(C) 56
(D) 7
Q20.
Assertion: Glycolysis can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
Reason: Glycolysis produces ATP through oxidative phosphorylation in both conditions.
(A) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation.
(C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Q21.
The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
(A) G1 → G2 →S → M
(B) S → G1 → G2 →M
(C) G1 → S → G2 → M
(D) M → G1 → G2 → S
Q22.
How many functional megaspores are formed from 40 megaspore mother cells in an angiosperm?
(A) 40
(B) 120
(C) 10
(D) 160
Q23.
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalysed by
(A) hexokinase
(B) enolase
(C) phosphofructokinase
(D) aldolase
Q24.
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.07
(C) 0.09
(D) 0.9
Q25.
If a mutation changes a codon from UAC to UAA, what type of mutation is this?
(A) Missense mutation
(B) Nonsense mutation
(C) Silent mutation
(D) Frameshift mutation
Q26.
Which of the following pairs of organelles does not contain DNA?
(A) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(B) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(C) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
(D) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Q27.
The concept of 'Omnis cellula-e-cellula' regarding cell division was first proposed by
(A) Theodor Schwann
(B) Schleiden
(C) Aristotle
(D) Rudolf Virchow
Q28.
Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
(A) Genetic code is redundant
(B) Genetic code is nearly universal
(C) Genetic code is specific
(D) Genetic code is not ambiguous
Q29.
Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells?
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi complex
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Lysosomes
Q30.
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
(A) protein synthesis
(B) mRNA
(C) RNA
(D) IRNA
Q31.
A plant with genotype AaBb is self-crossed. What proportion of the progeny will be heterozygous for both traits?
(A) 1/16
(B) 3/16
(C) 6/16
(D) 9/16
Q32.
After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells have
(A) same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S-phase
(B) twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(C) same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(D) four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
Q33.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of lecithin?
(A) Arachidonic acid
(B) Phospholipid
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Phosphoprotein
Q34.
The main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is
(A) passive transport is non-selective whereas active transport is selective
(B) passive transport requires a concentration gradient across a biological membrane whereas active transport requires energy to move solutes.
(C) both
(D) None
Q35.
What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5' TEMPLATE STRAND
5'TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING STRAND
(A) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'
(B) 5'-UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'
(C) 3'-UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
(D) 5'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'
Q36.
A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be
(A) species-specific and symbiotic
(B) free-living and broad spectrum
(C) narrow spectrum and symbiotic
(D) species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms
Q37.
Q38.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In plants, some binds to RuBisCO, hence C fixation is decreased.
Statement II: In plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q39.
Why is chemotaxonomy considered an important tool in modern plant classification?
(A) It relies on the morphological features of plants.
(B) It uses evolutionary relationships among plants.
(C) It involves the analysis of chemical compounds present in plants.
(D) It is based on numerical data of observable characteristics.
Q40.
Match the following RNA polymerases with their transcribed products
1.RNA polymerase I i. tRNA
2.RNA polymerase II ii. rRNA
3.RNA polymerase III iii. hnRNA
Select the correct option from the following
(A) 1 2 3 (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i)
Q41.
In a marriage between male with blood group A and female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of parents?
(A) IAi (Male) : IBIB (Female)
(B) IAIA (Male) : IBIB (Female)
(C) IAIA (Male) : IBi (Female)
(D) IAi (Male): IBi (Female)
Q42.
Which of the following adaptations in gymnosperms is critical for survival in extreme climatic conditions?
(A) Presence of fibrous root system
(B) Production of flagellated sperms
(C) Presence of sunken stomata and thick cuticle
(D) Formation of large, broad leaves
Q43.
Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?
(A) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions
(B) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
(C) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
(D) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
Q44.
From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of Genetic code.
(A) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
(B) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
(C) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(D) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Nonambiguous
Q45.
Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?
(A) Beadle and Tatum
(B) Meselson and Stahl
(C) Hershey and Chase
(D) Jacob and Monod
Q46.
Identify the incorrect statements about bryophytes:
1. The sporophyte is photosynthetic and independent.
2. They have multicellular rhizoids.
3. They exhibit alternation of generations.
4. Gametophyte is the dominant phase.
Options:
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Both 3 and 4
Q47.
What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in Prokaryotes?
(A) σ and , respectively
(B) a and , respectively
(C) and , respectively
(D) α and σ, respectively
Q48.
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood using
(A) pie diagram
(B) a pyramid diagram
(C) Punnett square
(D) Venn diagram
Q49.
Q50.
Which of the following features distinguishes gymnosperms from pteridophytes?
(A) Presence of archegonia
(B) Dominant sporophyte phase
(C) Vascular tissues
(D) Presence of seeds