Biotechnology Principles and Processes - NCERT Based MCQs for NEET Exam

This article contains NCERT based 45 MCQ questions test on Biology chapter "Biotechnology Principles and Processes". These questions are highly valuable for the NEET exam. You can attempt these questions in the form of an interactive quiz and calculate your score. Read the below quiz rules carefully before you start

General Instructions

• Quiz contains 45 questions of 4 marks each.
• Correct answer (✔) will award you +4 marks and Incorrect answer (✘) will give you -1 mark.
• Total test is of 180 marks.
• Tap on box in order to select any option that you think is correct.
• Press the Submit button given in the end of quiz to calculate your score.
• There is a PDF file attached in the end of quiz. You can see detailed solutions to all questions and do self analysis from that file as well. 

Question 1. Introduction of foreign gene into an organism for its better trait is called

(1) genetic engineering 

(2) gene therapy

(3) biopiracy 

(4) biotechnology

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Question 2. In genetic fingerprinting, the ‘probe’ refers to –

(1) a radioactively labelled single stranded DNA molecule

(2) a radioactively labelled single stranded RNA molecule

(3) a radioactively labelled double stranded RNA molecule

(4) a radioactively labelled double stranded DNA molecule 

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Question 3. Plants in comparison to animals are more rapidly manipulated by genetic engineering. Select out the most probable reason for this.

(1) Totipotency shown by plant cells.

(2) Single somatic cell can regenerate a whole plant body.

(3) Genetic engineering is supplemented with plant tissue culture techniques.

(4) All of the above 

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Question 4. Match the items in column I with their uses in column II and choose the right option

Column I	Column II
A. ELISA	(i) Antigen-antibody interaction
B. PCR	(ii) Gene amplification
C. Biolistics	(iii) Direct introduction of recombinant DNA
D. Micro-injection	(iv) Gold coated DNA

(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)

(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) 

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Question 5. Most suitable method of introducing alien DNA into a plant cell is

(1) lipofection 

(2) biolistics

(3) heat shock method 

(4) microinjection

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Question 6. Which one of the following statements is not correct about a plasmid?

(1) It has the ability of autonomous replication.

(2) It is a circular DNA.

(3) It’s DNA is as long as chromosomal DNA.

(4) It has antibiotic resistant gene

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Question 7. Plasmid vector in DNA recombinant technology means

(1) a virus that transfers gene to bacteria

(2) extra-chromosomal autonomously replicating circular DNA

(3) sticky end of DNA

(4) any fragment of DNA carrying desirable gene

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Question 8. Which organism is used to transfer T-DNA?

(1) Streptomyces hygroscopicus

(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(3) Salmonella typhi

(4) Escherichia coli

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Question 9. The enzyme used to join the fragments of DNA during the process of replication is

(1) DNA polymerase 

(2) DNA ligase

(3) endonuclease 

(4) helicase

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Question 10. Restriction endonucleases are

(1) used for in vitro DNA synthesis

(2) synthesised by bacteria as part of their defence mechanism.

(3) present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies.

(4) used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules.

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Question 11. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with

(1) methylase 

(2) endonucleases

(3) ligases 

(4) exonucleases

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Question 12. Which one of these is not a tool of recombinant DNA technology?

(1) Restriction enzyme 

(2) Vector

(3) Polymerase enzyme 

(4) Introns

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Question 13. One of the methods by which DNA cannot be transferred to the host cell is by

(1) microinjection 

(2) gene gun

(3) disarmed pathogen vectors

(4) polymerase chain reaction

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Question 14. Which of the following enzymes is used to join DNA fragments?

(1) DNA polymerase 

(2) Ligase

(3) Primase 

(4) Endonuclease

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Question 15. Restriction endonucleases

(1) are synthesised by bacteria as part of their defence mechanism

(2) are used for in vitro DNA synthesis.

(3) are used in genetic engineering for ligation of two DNA molecules.

(4) are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies.

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Question 16. Hind II cuts DNA molecule at a specific point by recognising a specific sequence of2

(1) 2 base pairs 

(2) 3 base pairs

(3) 5 base pairs 

(4) 6 base pairs

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Question 17. Select the wrong statement.

(1) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue colour colonies, if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert.

(2) Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.

(3) In microinjection, cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.

(4) Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule it cannot pass through cell membranes.

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Question 18. The enzyme used for the purpose of joining a novel gene with host DNA is

(1) endonuclease 

(2) helicase

(3) ligase 

(4) polymerase

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Question 19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector?

(1) It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez.

(2) It is the most widely used, versatile and easily manipulated vector.

(3) It has two antibiotic resistance genes, tetR and ampR.

(4) It does not have restriction site for Sal I.

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Question 20. In order to induce the bacterial uptake of plasmids, the bacteria are made ‘competent’ by first treating with

(1) sodium chloride 

(2) potassium chloride

(3) magnesium chloride 

(4) calcium chloride

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Question 21. Which of the following techniques is most widely employed to check the progress of restriction enzyme digestion?

(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis

(2) Centrifugation

(3) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

(4) PCR

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Question 22. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the native plasmid of

(1) Escherichia coli

(2) Salmonella typhimurium

(3) Clostridium butylicum

(4) Acetobacter aceti

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Question 23. Identify the DNA segment which is not a palindromic sequence.

(1) 5' GGATCC 3', 3' GGTACC 5'

(2) 5' GAATTC 3', 3' GGTACC 5'

(3) 5'GCGGCCGC3', 3' GGCCGGCG 5' 

(4) 5' CCCGGG 3',  3' GGGCCC 5'

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Question 24. EcoRI is

(1) used to join two DNA fragments

(2) a restriction enzyme

(3) the abbreviation for bacterium Escherichia coli

(4) a plasmid

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Question 25. During gene cloning, the enzyme used to join the DNA with the plasmid vector is

(1) DNA ligase

(2) restriction endonuclease

(3) alkaline phosphatase

(4) exonuclease

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Question 26. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?

(1) 5' - CGTATG - 3', 3' - GCATAC - 5'

(2) 5' - CGAATG - 3', 3' - CGAATG - 5'

(3) 5' - GAATTC - 3', 3' - CTTAAG - 5' 

(4) 5' - GACTAC - 3', 3' - TACGAC - 5'

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Question 27. Which of the following is a cloning vector?

(1) DNA of Salmonella typhimurium

(2) Ti plasmid

(3) Any DNA containing antibiotic resistance genes

(4) Ori minus pBR322

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Question 28. Eco RI cleaves the DNA strands to produce

(1) blunt ends 

(2) sticky ends

(3) satellite ends 

(4) ori replication end 

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Question 29. Match the entries in column I with those of column II and choose the correct answer

Column I	Column II
(A) Restriction endonucleases	(p) Kohler and Milstein
(B) Polymerase chain reaction	(q) Alec Jeffreys
(C) DNA fingerprinting	(r) Arber
(D) Monoclonal antibodies	(s) Karry Mullis

(1) A-(r), B-(s), C-(q), D-(p)

(2) A-(r), B-(q), C-(s), D-(p)

(3) A - (q), B - (r), C-(s), D-(p)

(4) A - (q), B - (s), C-(r), D-(q) 

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Question 30. The restriction enzyme(s) used in recombinant DNA technology that make staggered cuts in DNA leaving sticky ends is/are

(1) EcoRI 

(2) HindIII

(3) BamHI 

(4) all of these

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Question 31. Restriction enzyme Eco RI cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence in DNA is –

(1) GATATC 

(2) GAATTC

(3) GATTCC 

(4) GAACTT

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Question 32. Cohen and Boyer isolated an antibiotic resistance gene, by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance, in the year

(1) 1962 

(2) 1965

(3) 1972 

(4) 1982

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Question 33. In a genetic engineering experiment, restriction enzymes can be used for

(1) bacterial DNA only 

(2) viral DNA only

(3) any DNA fragment 

(4) eukaryotic DNA only

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Question 34. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

(1) 5' - CGTTCG - 3', 3' - CCAAGC - 5' 

(2) 5' - GAATTC - 3'  3' - CTTAAG - 5'

(3) 5' - CTACTG - 3', 3' - GTGCAA - 5'  

(4) 5' - CACGTA - 3' 3' - GCATAC - 5'3

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Question 35. Gel electrophoresis is used for the

(1) separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

(2) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors.

(3) culturing the host cells in a medium at a large scale.

(4) replication of DNA for many times.

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Question 36. The usual source of restriction endonucleases used in gene cloning is

(1) fungi 

(2) bacteria

(3) plants 

(4) viruses

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Question 37. The term, ‘Southem Blotting’ refers to –

(1) transfer of DNA fragments from in vitro cellulose membrane to electrophoretic gel.

(2) attachment of probes to DNA fragments.

(3) transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose sheet.

(4) comparison of DNA fragments from two sources.

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Question 38. Plasmids are

(1) extra chromosomal DNA which can self replicate.

(2) DNA carrying genetic sequence, without expressing it

(3) integrated within host DNA without replication ability

(4) none of these.

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Question 39. Which of the following is not correct statement about the plasmids ?

(1) It is the extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria.

(2) It is not a integral part but inert genetic material.

(3) Host chromosome can be integrated with the plasmid.

(4) Transfer of plasmid can be done from cell to cell without killing the host.

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Question 40. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

(1) single stranded RNA 

(2) double stranded DNA

(3) single stranded DNA 

(4) double stranded RNA

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Question 41. Biolistic technique is used in

(1) tissue culture process

(2) gene transfer process

(3) hybridisation process

(4) germplasm conservation process

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Question 42. How are transformants selected from nontransformants?

(1) Presence of more than one recognition site in the vector DNA.

(2) Presence of alien DNA into the vector DNA results into insertional inactivation of selectable marker/

(3) Antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA.

(4) Both (2) and (3)

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Question 43. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique that is used for

(1) in vivo replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase

(2) in vitro synthesis of mRN A

(3) in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase

(4) in vivo synthesis of mRNA

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Question 44. Bioreactors are useful in

(1) separation and purification of a product

(2) processing of large volumes of culture

(3) micro-injection

(4) isolation of genetic material

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Question 45. Identify the desirable characteristics for a plasmid used in rDNA technology from the following.

A. Ability to multiply and express outside the host in a bioreactor.

B. A highly active promoter

C. A site at which replication can he initiated

D. One or more identifiable marker genes

E. One or more unique restriction sites

(1) A, C, D and E only 

(2) A, C and E only

(3) B, C, D and E only 

(4) B, C and E only

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Detailed Solutions

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