Evolution - NCERT Based MCQ Questions

This article contains NCERT based 45 MCQ questions test on Biology chapter "Evolution". You can attempt these questions in the form of an interactive quiz and calculate your score. Read the below quiz rules carefully before you start

General Instructions

• Quiz contains 45 questions of 4 marks each.
• Correct answer (✔) will award you +4 marks and Incorrect answer (✘) will give you -1 mark.
• Total test is of 180 marks.
• Tap on box in order to select any option that you think is correct.
• Press the Submit button given in the end of quiz to calculate your score.
• There is a PDF file attached in the end of quiz. You can see detailed solutions to all questions and do self analysis from that file as well.

Question 1. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

(1) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

(2) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

(3) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

(4) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

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Question 2. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:

(1) life arose from living forms only

(2) life can arise from both living and non-living

(3) life can arise from non-living things only.

(4) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

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Question 3. Animal husbandry and plant breeding programes are the examples of:

(1) reverse evolution

(2) artificial selection

(3) mutation

(4) natural selection

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Question 4. Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the:

(1) development of embryo

(2) homologous organs

(3) fossils

(4) analogous organs

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Question 5. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because:

(1) one organism has given rise to another

(2) they share a common ancestor

(3) they perform the same function

(4) the have biochemical similarities

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Question 6. Analogous organs arise due to:

(1) divergent evolution

(2) artificial selection

(3) genetic drift

(4) convergent evolution

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Question 7. (p + q)² = p² + 2pq + q² = 1 represents an equation used in:

(1) population genetics

(2) mendelian genetics

(3) biometrics

(4) molecular genetics

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Question 8. Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:

(1) adaptive radiation

(2) transduction

(3) pre-existing variation in the population

(4) divergent evolution

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Question 9. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from:

(1) land to water

(2) dryland to wet land

(3) fresh water to sea water

(4) water to land

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Question 10. Which compounds were used by Miller in his experiment for obtaining amino acids and other organic substances?

(1) Carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane.

(2) Methane, ammonia, water vapour & hydrogen cyanide

(3) Methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour.

(4) Ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.

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Question 11. Fossils are generally found in:

(1) Sedimentary rocks

(2) Igneous rocks

(3) Metamorphic rocks

(4) Any type of rock

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Question 12. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be –

(1) 42%

(2) 49%

(3) 9%

(4) 58%

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Question 13. Which type of selection is industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston bitularia:

(1) Stabilizing

(2) Directional

(3) Disruptive

(4) Artificial

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Question 14. The important gas which was absent during the formation of earth is –

(1) oxygen

(2) hydrogen

(3) nitrogen

(4) carbon dioxide

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Question 15. Origin of life as a result of chemical evolution has been properly explained by or the most logical biochemical theory of origin of life has been given by –

(1) Stanley Miller

(2) Darwin

(3) AI Oparin

(4) S Fox

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Question 16. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

(i) Formation of protobionts

(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers

(iii) Synthesis of organic polymers

(iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

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Question 17. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?

(1) SL Miller

(2) Oparin and Haldane

(3) Charles Darwin

(4) Alfred Wallace

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Question 18. Variations during mutations of meiotic recombinations are:

(1) random and directionless

(2) random and directional

(3) random and small

(4) random, small and directional

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Question 19. What did scientists discover when spacecraft flew through the tail of Halley's comet in 1986?

(1) ozone

(2) amino acids

(3) DNA

(4) organic compounds, including formaldehyde

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Question 20. During which era of geologic time did primates first appear?

(1) Paleozoic

(2) Cenozoic

(3) Precambrian

(4) Mesozoic

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Question 21. What are rocks formed from layers of photosynthetic organisms that once lived in shallow seas?

(1) methanogens

(2) hydrothermal vents

(3) metamorphic rocks

(4) stromatolites

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Question 22. Evidence shows that about 15 billion years ago, the whole universe was condensed into one mass that exploded. What is that explosion known as?

(1) The rigin of Life

(2) The Hubble Space Telescope

(3) The Big Bang

(4) The Supernova

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Question 23. During which era of geologic time did prokaryotes first appear?

(1) Mesozoic

(2) Precambrian

(3) Paleozoic

(4) Cenozoic

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Question 24. When did oxygen gas first begin to accumulate in the atmosphere?

(1) about 3.5 to 3.0 billion years ago

(2) about 4.6 billion years ago

(3) about 3.5 million years ago

(4) about 4.6 million years ago

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Question 25. What materials did Miller and Urey place into their apparatus to simulate conditions on early Earth?

(1) nitrogen, hydrogen, carbon, water

(2) oxygen, water, hydrogen, carbon dioxide

(3) methane, hydrogen, ammonia gases, water vapor

(4) methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, water

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Question 26. Which of the following pairs of organisms first appeared on Earth during the Paleozoic era?

(1) reptiles and amphibians

(2) eukaryotes and prokaryotes

(3) dinosaurs and flowering plants

(4) primates and humans

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Question 27. Which of these statements is NOT a part of the heterotroph hypothesis for the origin of life?

(1) There was a supply of organic molecules, produced by nonbiological processes.

(2) Life originated by unknown means on Earth.

(3) Some processes organized polymers into a system that could replicate itself.

(4) Some processes assembled small organic molecules into polymers.

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Question 28. What is an organism that has a mutually beneficial symbiotic relationship with a host organism while living in the host?

(1) hydrothermal organism

(2) methanogen

(3) endosymbiont

(4) stromatolite

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Question 29. Suppose a bird species can be found in two different habitats. On observation, it appears that the population living in a swamp doesn't crossbreed with the population living on a brushy slope. What is this an example of?

(1) ecological isolation

(2) geographical isolation

(3) behavioral isolation

(4) polyploidy

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Question 30. Which of these is NOT a way in which fossils form?

(1) dinosaur footprints pressed into mud

(2) wood burned in a fire

(3) diatoms shells preserved in rock

(4) insect trapped in amber

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Question 31. What is the most significant molecular homology providing evidence for evolution?

(1) DNA

(2) amino acid sequences of proteins

(3) pseudogenes

(4) nucleotide sequences of homologous genes

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Question 32. What is an evolutionary condition in which the rate of large-scale change remains slow for a very long period of time?

(1) geographical isolation

(2) polyploidy

(3) adaptive radiation

(4) stasis

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Question 33. What element found in sediments provides evidence that an asteroid or comet hit Earth 65 million years ago?

(1) plutonium

(2) uranium

(3) iridium

(4) radium

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Question 34. What is a mechanism of speciation in plants that results from the duplication of chromosomes?

(1) behavioral isolation

(2) ecological isolation

(3) polyploidy

(4) geographical isolation

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Question 35. What is a type of evolution in which change takes place at a slow, steady rate?

(1) gradualism

(2) stasis

(3) adaptive radiation

(4) punctuated equilibrium

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Question 36. Which of these provide direct evidence of evolution due to selective pressure?

(1) height of human males

(2) pollination of flowers by bees

(3) antibiotic resistance in bacteria

(4) long necks in giraffes

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Question 37. What are nonfunctional DNA segments that are similar in sequence to a functioning gene?

(1) exons

(2) introns

(3) pseudogenes

(4) deletions

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Question 38. What is the continuous adaptation of different species to each other?

(1) adaptive radiation

(2) stasis

(3) coevolution

(4) gradualism

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Question 39. How many offspring do most primates bear at one time?

(1) four

(2) two

(3) three

(4) one

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Question 40. Which of these primates is the closest relative to humans?

(1) loris

(2) orangutan

(3) lemur

(4) tarsier

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Question 41. The hominid family, Hominidae, includes two genera - Homo and the extinct ________.

(1) Ramapithecus

(2) Australopithecus

(3) Rana

(4) Pinus

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Question 42. What hominid species appeared in southeastern and eastern Asia by about 1 million years ago?

(1) Homo sapiens

(2) Homo erectus

(3) Homo habilis

(4) Homo ergaster

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Question 43. Which of these bones is the most useful in comparing hominids to modern humans?

(1) teeth

(2) the pelvis

(3) wrist bones

(4) neck vertebrae

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Question 44. What are bipedal, humanlike animals that belong to the same family as modern humans?

(1) homonoids

(2) humanoids

(3) anthropoids

(4) hominids

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Question 45. The oldest human fossils have been found in a cave in Spain. What species of human are these fossils?

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Homo ergaster

(3) Homo heidelbergensis

(4) Homo erectus

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Detailed Solutions

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