Human Health and Disease - NCERT Based MCQ Questions for NEET

This article contains NCERT based 45 MCQ questions test on Biology chapter "Human Health and Disease". These questions are highly valuable for the NEET exam. You can attempt these questions in the form of an interactive quiz and calculate your score. Read the below quiz rules carefully before you start

General Instructions

• Quiz contains 45 questions of 4 marks each.
• Correct answer (✔) will award you +4 marks and Incorrect answer (✘) will give you -1 mark.
• Total test is of 180 marks.
• Tap on box in order to select any option that you think is correct.
• Press the Submit button given in the end of quiz to calculate your score.
• There is a PDF file attached in the end of quiz. You can see detailed solutions to all questions and do self analysis from that file as well. 

Question 1. The colostrum provides –

(1) naturally acquired active immunity.

(2) naturally acquired passive immunity.

(3) artificially acquired active immunity.

(4) artificially acquired passive immunity.

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Question 2. The primary lymphoid organ is –

(1) tonsils 

(2) Payer’s patches

(3) lymph nodes 

(4) thymus

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Question 3. Immunity that develops in the foetus after receiving antibodies form mother's blood through placenta is –

(1) naturally acquired active immunity.

(2) artificially acquired active immunity.

(3) naturally acquired passive immunity.

(4) artificially acquired passive immunity.

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Question 4. Intermediate host of malarial parasite is –

(1) pig 

(2) man

(3) mosquito 

(4) larva of mosquito

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Question 5. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by phagocytosis?

(1) Eosinophil and basophil.

(2) Basophil and lymphocyte.

(3) Neutrophil and monocyte.

(4) Neutrophil and lymphocyte.

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Question 6. Which of the following human parasites require mosquito to complete their life cycle?

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides and Wuchereria bancrofti.

(2) Leishmania donovani and Plasmodium ovale

(3) Ascaris lumbricoides and Leishmania donovani

(4) Wuchereria bancrofti and Plasmodium ovale

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Question 7. The time interval of appearance of fever in the malarial patients depends on the types of malaria. The research evidences suggest that such time intervals are (a) 36-48 hours, (b) 48 hours and (c) 72 hours. If any such patient experiences fever at an interval of 48 hours, then the said patient suffers from.

(1) only benign tertian malaria.

(2) quarantan malaria or mild tertian malaria.

(3) malignant tertian malaria or benign tertian malaria.

(4) mild tertian malaria or benign tertian malaria.

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Question 8. Sandflies play significant role in spreading kala-azar because they .

I. suck blood only from the patients suffering from kala-azar.

II. convert amastigote into promastigote.

III. engulf amastigote at the time of blood sucking from the infected persons.

IV. inject promastigote into the body of non-infected persons at the time of blood sucking

(1) I and II 

(2) II and III

(3) II, III and IV 

(4) III and IV

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Question 9. Which of the following statements (s) are true?

I. Antibiotics can kill bacteria, but disinfectants do not

II. Disinfectants have better bactericidal efficiency than antibiotics.

III. Antibiotics are of microbial origin, but disinfectant are chemical compounds.

IV. Antibiotics can be injected into the patients, whereas disinfectants are not

(1) Only I 

(2) Only II

(3) Only III 

(4) II, III and IV

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Question 10. Passive immunity is

(1) inherited from parents.

(2) acquired through first exposure to the disease.

(3) achieved directly through readymade antibodies.

(4) achieved through vaccination.

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Question 11. The diseases like malaria and filariasis are transmitted through insect vectors, vectors can be controlled by introducing fish

(1) Labeo 

(2) Gambusia

(3) Hilsa 

(4) Catla

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Question 12. Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by –

(1) sexual contact with infected person.

(2) transfusion of contaminated blood.

(3) by sharing infected needles.

(4) All of the above.

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Question 13. Which of the following organ is called graveyard of RBCs?

(1) Spleen 

(2) Liver

(3) Kidney 

(4) Heart

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Question 14. Match the following colunms.

Column I Column II

A. African sleeping sickness i. Sacculina

B. Dumdum fever ii. Haemophilus influenzae

C. Pneumonia iii. Leishmania donovani

D. Parasitic castration iv. Tryponosoma gambiense

v. Leishmania tropica

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 

(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

(3) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii 

(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

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Question 15. Note the following features and choose the ones applicable to Wuchereria bancrofti –

I. Coelozoic parasite 

II. Histozoic parasite

III. Monogenetic parasite 

IV. Digenetic parasite

V. Dimorphic pseudocoelomate parasite

(1) II, IV and V 

(2) III, V and IV

(3) I, III and IV 

(4) II, III and V

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Question 16. After drinking alcohol, a person walks clumsily because, the alcohol affects his –

(1) cerebellum 

(2) cerebrum

(3) Medulla oblongata 

(4) spinal cord

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Question 17. Cannabis sativa is the source of –

(1) opium 

(2) LSD

(3) marijuana 

(4) cocaine

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Question 18. Alcoholism may leads to –

(1) skin cancer 

(2) liver cirrhosis

(3) viral disease 

(4) eye infections

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Question 19. Dipsomania is

(1) a type of depression

(2) insanity due to psychosis

(3) severe addiction to alcohol

(4) tendency to take much water

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Question 20. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by

(1) Thrombocytes 

(2) Erythrocytes

(3) T-lymphocytes 

(4) B-lymphocytes

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Question 21. Amphetamines are the drugs of

(1) narcotics 

(2) sedatives

(3) stimulants 

(4) hallucinogens

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Question 22. Which one'of the following is a matching pair of a drug and its category?

(1) Amphetamines – Stimulant

(2) Lysergic acid diethyl amide – Narcotic

(3) Heroin – Psychotropic

(4) Benzodiazepine –Pain killer

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Question 23. Morphine, obtained from opium, is –

(1) latex 

(2) pome

(3) alkaloid 

(4) tannin

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Question 24. Quinine is obtained from –

(1) bark of Cinchona 

(2) root of Cinchona

(3) wood of Cinchona 

(4) leaves of Cinchona

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Question 25. Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause

(1) reduction in oxygen transport

(2) increase in blood pressure

(3) cancer

(4) retardation of growth of foetus

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Question 26. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine

Column I Column II

(a) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus

(b) Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin

(c) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria

(d) Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 

(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 

(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

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Question 27. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?

(1) Morphine 

(2) LSD

(3) Amphetamines 

(4) Barbiturates

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Question 28. Diacetyl morphine is commonly known as –

(1) morphine 

(2) Cannabis

(3) herom 

(4) cocaine

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Question 29. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

(1) Cholera and tetanus 

(2) Typhoid and smallpox

(3) Tetanus and mumps 

(4) Herpes and influenza

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Question 30. Neurasthenia refers to –

(1) undue concern about health

(2) traumatic experience like rape

(3) disorder of sensory perception

(4) mental inability to concentrate on or enjoy things

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Question 31. The biochemical procedure used to detect human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (hCG) is

(1) WIDAL 

(2) CAT

(3) MRI 

(4) ELISA

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Question 32. In which diagnostic system, piezoelectric effect and

reverse piezoelectric effect are involved?

(1) EEG 

(2) CAT

(3) USG 

(4) MRI

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Question 33. The expanded name of MRI is –

(1) Medical Research Instrument.

(2) Magnetic Resonance Imaging.

(3) Magnetic Research Institute.

(4) Medical Resonance Imaging.

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Question 34. If haemoglobin (Hb) of a normal individual and a sickle-cell patient are run in electrophoretic field, they will show

(1) same mobilities

(2) different mobilities

(3) Hb of patient will not move at all

(4) Hbs are immobile

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Question 35. In ultrasonography –

(1) antigen-antibody interactions occur

(2) high frequency sound waves are used

(3) magnetic waves are used .

(4) None of the above

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Question 36. Cyclosporin A, which is used, as an immunosuppressive agent, is produced by

(1) Aspergillus 

(2) Clostridium

(3) Saccharomyces 

(4) Trichoderma

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Question 37. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by –

(1) CT-scan 

(2) Sphygmomanometer

(3) ECG 

(4) EEG

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Question 38. The drug cyclosporin' used for organ transplant patients

obtained from a –

(1) bacterium 

(2) fungus

(3) virus 

(4) plant

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Question 39. Sir Godfrey Hounsfield developed the diagnostic technique of –

(1) CT scanning 

(2) MRI

(3) endoscopy 

(4) bronchoscopy

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Question 40. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes 

(1) one to each wrist and to the left ankle.

(2) one to each ankle and to the left wrist.

(3) one to each wrist and to the left chest region.

(4) one to each ankle and to the left chest region.

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Question 41. ELISA assay –

(1) uses complement mediated cell lysis.

(2) uses a radio labelled second antibody.

(3) involves addition of substrate which is converted coloured end product.

(4) requires red blood cells.

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Question 42. In which of the following, optical fibres are used?

(1) Sonography 

(2) Endoscopy

(3) MRI 

(4) CT-scan

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Question 43. Which of the following is used in diagnosis of epilepsy?

(1) X-ray radiography.

(2) Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA).

(3) Sonography.

(4) Positron Emission Tomography (PET).

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Question 44. Consider the following four statements (I-IV) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these –

I. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppressants for a long time.

II. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.

III. The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.

IV. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.

The two correct statements are

(1) II and III 

(2) III and IV

(3) I and III 

(4) I and II

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Question 45. MRI is not allowed in the following conditions except one. Identify the exception.

(1) presence of pacemaker in the body.

(2) pregnant women

(3) person suffering from stroke

(4) presence of metallic plate in the body for treatment of broken bones.

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Detailed Solutions

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